Can someone please explain this for newbies to learn? Thanks
It basically means someone bought 258 $700 calls for this week for $500k. While this is heavy speculation on the buyer's motivation, IMHO the likely scenario is a short/day trade. The buyer simply thinks there's going to be a short term spike in TSLA and wants to capital size on max ∆/$ by buying a close expiration. A spike will also likely raise IV on the contract, which would further add to the buyer's profit.
The downside of course is high theta, but over the course of a few hours the extrinsic value will only erode by a few percent and even overnight its only going to be maybe 20%. That's the price the buyer is wiling to pay, knowing a small [favorable] movement in underlying will easily cover whatever time value burns off...then the rest is upside. As a bit of a WAG, if TSLA opens at something like $720-725 the buyer would ~double their money.
Given that the price paid was conveniently almost exactly half a million dollars it is unlikely the buyer is making a short term play to grab shares at a discount, but that's the other probable scenario. If TSLA is above ~probably $710-715 at expiration, the buyer breaks even (vs just buying ~$18M of shares this morning). Maybe even lower than that, because I'm using current CVs and don't actually know when that order was placed and at what underlying price. Anyway, $725-730 could doubles the $500k and $750 might nets $1M or more. From a risk management perspective this strategy of entering shares also limits portfolio downside to $500k, which is actually a pretty reasonable tradeoff given the much MUCH larger downside potential had the buyer bought $18M worth of shares this morning and then TSLA went to *sugar* this week. For round numbers, ~$20 movement in TSLA represents ~$500k on 25.8k shares...so if the buyer bought 25.8k at, say, $680 (this morning) they'd be worse off if price was below ~$660 at the end of the week then had they just bought the 258 calls.