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Tesla, TSLA & the Investment World: the Perpetual Investors' Roundtable

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My assumption is the split event causes all shares to be accounted for and the new shares to be assigned to specific existing shares.
The brokerage gets a number of new shares based on the number of real shares (ones that originated outside the brokerage) in the brokerage.

This is pretty basic accounting. Why would "real shares" need to exist when someone sells their shares but not when 4 new dividend shares are assigned to each existing share on a given date of record? That would make no sense.
The same way two real shares don't exist when A's shares are lent to B and sold to C. A's account shows a share as does C's, but between them there is only one share.
Post event, each account shows five shares, and only 5 shares exist.
Really, the brokerage has millions of shares and only a percentage are lent, so it is quite fluid/ liquid.
 
The brokerage gets a number of new shares based on the number of real shares (ones that originated outside the brokerage) in the brokerage.


The same way two real shares don't exist when A's shares are lent to B and sold to C. A's account shows a share as does C's, but between them there is only one share.
Post event, each account shows five shares, and only 5 shares exist.
Really, the brokerage has millions of shares and only a percentage are lent, so it is quite fluid/ liquid.

OK, we will just have to agree to disagree on this. Because I'm fairly certain the new shares are assigned on an individual basis for purposes of accounting for the shares that exist on the corporate level.
 
I'm assuming it would be the date of record (today) but I don't know if they would have some leeway in getting around that and doing the last bit of covering next week while all the records are being compiled. The more I think about it, for the kind of scheme I outlined, they could probably continue to "make things whole" in the beginning of next week.
I honestly don't know. If I wanted to, I could figure it out but that would bring others out of the woodwork to "discuss". Don't have the energy to deal with it. Like you (mostly), I am a long term holder of equity, so this split is just one of those things that happens along the way to successful investing.
 
I honestly don't know. If I wanted to, I could figure it out but that would bring others out of the woodwork to "discuss". Don't have the energy to deal with it. Like you (mostly), I am a long term holder of equity, so this split is just one of those things that happens along the way to successful investing.
We're closing in on $2100....let's all be happy with that! :) :)
 
We're closing in on $2100....let's all be happy with that! :) :)
so if I bought a share at $2100 pre-split, post split it would listed in my account as 5x $420, right? I missed $420 the first time around (coz I'm all smart like that, and wasn't going to buy into the rise, instead deworsifying my account) and now I don't have enough dry powder to swing the share.

Hmmm... would buying 0.2 shares at $2100 result in a single at $420?
 
so if I bought a share at $2100 pre-split, post split it would listed in my account as 5x $420, right? I missed $420 the first time around (coz I'm all smart like that, and wasn't going to buy into the rise, instead deworsifying my account) and now I don't have enough dry powder to swing the share.

Hmmm... would buying 0.2 shares at $2100 result in a single at $420?

You need to account for any changes in the market price between the time you bought the shares and the opening price on the day after the shares start trading post-split.

Basically, to retail investors the split will be very transparent right up until the day you see 5X the number of shares at about 1/5th the price. You don't even need to concern yourself with it.
 
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