Newbie question... I am curious about the advantage of -c900 and -p900, plus the work to roll a leg afterwards.
Compared to, say, setting up in one trade -c900 -p690 (if i am assuming 690-900 is closing range).
I ***think*** the same strikes will generate a significantly higher credit, and it's cheaper to just roll a leg later???
What am i missing? Thanks in advance!
There's really little value to a DITM -P. Its really just a shitty version of a high ∆ +C position, and only makes sense in the highest of volatility environments. The major issue is that the extrinsic value 'bubble' peaks ATM--that is, the farther you go from the money (in either direction, ITM or OTM) the extrinsic value drops off. This can be ok for a DOTM -P where you give yourself a wide safety margin, and even an slightly ITM -P where there's still a good amount of extrinsic value to burn off, but with a DITM -P the extrinsic value and corollary theta become all but irrelevant and by far your position's primary method of generating profit is from upward underlying movement. In other words, a DITM -P is explicitly a directional position that relies on its high ∆.
As noted its a shitty high ∆ position, because as underlying moves in your favor the DITM -P's ∆ decreases, progressively decreasing the rate at which the position generates profit. Not a huge deal for small underlying movement (single digit %’s) but progressively worse as price keeps going up.
Volatility also really starts to nuke potential profit as well when you start DOTM, as both the IV and Vega bubbles peak ATM. What that means is that even with NO fundamental change in volatility (which in reality would likely be unfavorable to you if price starts to shoot up), as underlying starts to come toward your DOTM strike IV and Vega will climb up their respective bubbles and in doings so naturally drive up the extrinsic value of the contract...which of course is unfavorable to you. Again, less of a deal with small underlying movement, then progressively worse.
Don't get sucked into thinking the mega credit on a DITM sold contract is a good thing. Other than what you realize as profit through directional movement of the underlying you have to give
most of that credit back when you close the contract.
Anyway, IMHO far more sensible than a 900 -P would be to sell a DOTM - P for the same amount ofextrinsic value. You collect the ~same profit on time decay but you all but take the directional element out of the position. Or sell the 690 -P as you've identified and at least rake in a ton of extrinsic value. Then if you're also looking to capitalize on underlying directional movement, build a long position [that, as noted upthread many times, can include short legs].
I guess this all goes back to the notion of it being a fundamental requirement to understand how a position is
actually going to generate profit before entering a position (which of course, is why you're asking the question--that's a good thing!). Bottom line, a DITM -P doesn't generally generate profit in a very efficient way.