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Has there been an math or extrapolation regarding what a 5% power increase would tangibly drive? I've heard speculation of .1 sec of 0 to 60 time across the board, but wasn't sure what this might be based off of....
…the numbers Tesla supplied, for a start?
Power is proportional to acceleration,Has there been an math or extrapolation regarding what a 5% power increase would tangibly drive? I've heard speculation of .1 sec of 0 to 60 time across the board, but wasn't sure what this might be based off of....
Power is proportional to acceleration,
and velocity = acceleration * time
So if acceleration increases 5%, time decreases 5%
If a current LR Model 0-60 is 5.3 seconds, after the upgrade it will be 5.3/1.05 = 5.048 seconds
The energy invested in moving a car from 0 - 60 is ~ a combination of kinetic energy, road resistance, and aero forces acting on the car. Car power increases do not change that amount, which we will call W(ork).This is crazy flawed. Power is up 5%, not acceleration. A percentage increase in power is not proportional to the same increase in acceleration. Not even close.
The energy invested in moving a car from 0 - 60 is ~ a combination of kinetic energy, road resistance, and aero forces acting on the car. Car power increases do not change that amount, which we will call W(ork).
Power * time = work
Since work is ~ constant, power and time are inversely proportional.
At least so my HS level physics tells me.
Power is proportional to acceleration,
and velocity = acceleration * time
So if acceleration increases 5%, time decreases 5%
If a current LR Model 0-60 is 5.3 seconds, after the upgrade it will be 5.3/1.05 = 5.048 seconds
This is crazy flawed. Power is up 5%, not acceleration. A percentage increase in power is not proportional to the same increase in acceleration. Not even close.
SageBrush is correct:
Force = mass *acceleration
Force = electrical power (watts)* motor conversion factor
A 5% increase in peak power is a 5% increase in peak force, is a 5% increase in acceleration for the same mass, is also a 5% increase in velocity vs time.
However, in terms of a quarter mile, or other distance calc (ignoring rolling and aero):
position = 1/2*a*t^2, so with a 5% increase in a, the time to reach a specific distance changes by ~2.5%.
SageBrush is correct:
Force = mass *acceleration
Force = electrical power (watts)* motor conversion factor
A 5% increase in peak power is a 5% increase in peak force, is a 5% increase in acceleration for the same mass, is also a 5% increase in velocity vs time.
However, in terms of a quarter mile, or other distance calc (ignoring rolling and aero):
position = 1/2*a*t^2, so with a 5% increase in a, the time to reach a specific distance changes by ~2.5%.
You are misunderstanding Mongo. The percent reduction in time for a distance trial is the square root of that seen in a speed trial.That's already significantly cutting into SageBrush's time, which is exactly what I'm saying. I
An electric car reaches peak power sooner than an ICE, and stays there. This is why EVs keep dusting uninformed ICE drivers on the track despite having lower peak power ratings., there is a point of diminishing returns that anybody who understands performance cars knows about. My 460hp Corvette does 0-60 in something like 3.4 seconds. My 650 hp Viper does 0-60 in about 3.1 seconds, yet it has about 40% more power.
An electric car reaches peak power sooner than an ICE, and stays there. This is why EVs keep dusting uninformed ICE drivers on the track despite having lower peak power ratings.
Has there been an math or extrapolation regarding what a 5% power increase would tangibly drive? I've heard speculation of .1 sec of 0 to 60 time across the board, but wasn't sure what this might be based off of....
I was pointing out the greater discrepancy between peak power and average power in your ICE cars to explain your experience. If you knew the average power increase in your beefier car you would find that the improvement in race times is ~ proportional.Of course it reaches peak power faster than an ICE, but that has absolutely nothing to do with the direct 1:1 correlation you're asserting.