samppa
Active Member
My 1/14 -1100/+800 bps are starting to look good about now..
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IV matters, a few days ago 15% OTM was a lot more money. You can't really just claim some %OTM will return X% because of this. You could try to use delta though. Also spread width matters etc.I’m trying to understand the calculations and cannot get to 2% without being closer to ATM. For example, right now for Jan 21st using -900p/+800p: MaxPain premiums are $2.50-$0.71=$1.79 (ignoring the bid/ask spread which will further reduce premiums). A single spread risks $10,000-$179=$9981 (e.g., 100x(900-800)-100x$1.79). Return is then $179/$9981=0.0179 or 1.79% for one week plus two extra days, at about 82% (900/1093) of SP. Making this trade on Friday will probably result in an even lower premium, so I don’t see how 2%/wk is possible without greater risk. Timing the trade during a local SP drop will certainly increase the premiums received, but only because the trade is actually closer to ATM at the time.
FYI, I’m unable to trade spreads, and my returns on cash-secured puts, near ATM, are usually 0.5-1.5%/wk (factoring in all the rolling and bad timing). In a perfect trade, Jan. 21st -p1090s are paying $38 or 38/1090=3.49% or 2.5%/wk. This trade works perfectly when the SP rises exactly 2.5%/wk, since the premiums received are available to increase the strike price perfectly. Unfortunately, TSLA doesn’t seem to follow this dream world.
This is a good point and something we've had some confusion over in the past.A request regarding %-returns (and I know this has been discussed before):
I think that will really help everyone out who is looking at weekly performance targets to benchmark against
- when referring to %-return (i.e. 2% weekly), please always state clearly what the % is of
- is it % of total portfolio / % of available margin / % of available cash / % of TSLA holding etc.
In my case, I looked at my 2021 Sept - Dec performance / week as a % of the entire portfolio (100% TSLA + cash) and found that with the conservative BPS (far OTM, 200 wide spreads) and occasional CC (far OTM) I've not managed to hit 1% / week , more like 0.6%.
We base our return on our current cash position, which could all be put to work, or part of it could be put to work. If we have, for example, $100k cash and write 5 BPS ($100 wide) thereby risking $50k, but generating $2k income, we'd equate that to a 2% return on cash. We do not look at it purely based on risk - in this case a 4% return on money risked. At the end of the day, my parents care about income so at some point it will be a $ amount a week and not a return on the prior week/month's cash balance.2% return on what?
You mean 4%, right? Otherwise I'm super confused.So if I'm using $1M on a position and earn $40k then I've earned 2%.
Doh!!You mean 4%, right? Otherwise I'm super confused.
I love this post - no panic - just strategy and focus.Wow, blind squirrel wins once in a while. I was busy last week and didn't check my positions. I had an 1100-1050 BPS and got assigned the 500 shares at 1050. On Monday I had a margin call and Fidelity sold shares at 1060 to cover my balance, so saved 5000 on the assignment and the buy timing was pretty good. I'll keep the extra shares through earnings, if we're over 1200 by then, I will sell some CC's 200 above the market. Volatility should be getting exciting for the next couple of weeks.
I have 500 naked puts I was feeling pretty bad about last week due this Friday at 1120, feeling better now. If we get over 1120, I'll sell at the money puts, if we stay here, I'll take the shares. Two weeks til earnings and maybe Austin and Berlin opening announcement will happen during the earnings call.
Ignoring the shares my portfolio is targeted to be 1/3rd cash for selling put spreads and 2/3rds share replacement leaps (dominant position are June 750s) that I use to sell covered calls -- at least when I can sell strikes at the break even or above. The intent is that if disaster strikes on the put spreads then I can sell off half of the calls and still have enough cash to continue selling put spreads at the same level as before the disaster.
And here I thought other people were working with some really big positions! If my math is right, at $1100/share, that is a $55M position if cash secured. But maybe only $30M for margin?I have 500 naked puts I was feeling pretty bad about last week due this Friday at 1120, feeling better now. If we get over 1120, I'll sell at the money puts, if we stay here, I'll take the shares. Two weeks til earnings and maybe Austin and Berlin opening announcement will happen during the earnings call.
IV matters, a few days ago 15% OTM was a lot more money. You can't really just claim some %OTM will return X% because of this. You could try to use delta though. Also spread width matters etc.
Your welcome. I find myself thinking more in terms of 90-270 DTE on the long calls recently. For me that'll mean buying calls in the 180-270 DTE range and closing them out / replacing them with around 90 DTE to avoid the more dramatic time decay.Thanks for that comment. It gave me an idea for the pie chart to break out the calls and puts as well. Since all of my calls currently are leaps, that will give me a better picture of the amount I am selling BPS on. (Hmm. Actually I think I can make it specifically long calls with more than 365 DTE).
This is a good point and something we've had some confusion over in the past.
And an answer has just come to me this morning as this topic has resurfaced.
I think its fair to say that most of us are using capital at risk as the basis for the %. So if I'm using $1M on a position and earn $40k then I've earned 2% (EDIT: 4%!!!). But if I have a $10M portfolio and put $1M at risk, then that $40k is good for a 0.2% (EDIT: 0.4%!!!) portfolio return.
My suggestion is that we default assume that % gains are of the capital-at-risk variety (as I believe most of us have been using - I know that's what it is for me) and that we can refer to portfolio gains to refer to the larger idea. That provides a small bit of incremental terminology to keep the two clear, and clarity is indeed important on this point. Its easy to confuse the two and be thinking in terms of 2% portfolio returns. Those are only available with all of the portfolio at risk each week.
Your welcome. I find myself thinking more in terms of 90-270 DTE on the long calls recently. For me that'll mean buying calls in the 180-270 DTE range and closing them out / replacing them with around 90 DTE to avoid the more dramatic time decay.
It'll mean that all of the results are short term, but mostly these are in retirement accounts anyway. In the taxable account I find that I'm tying myself into knots to avoid short term gains on the high DTE long calls in the taxable account. Enough so that its becoming a problem, and now I'm leaning pretty heavily into treating them as I do the rest of the long calls.
I am more curious what OP is doing in Naperville with that bankroll.
And here I thought other people were working with some really big positions! If my math is right, at $1100/share, that is a $55M position if cash secured. But maybe only $30M for margin?
Any issues with getting that to fill? I've wondered off and on about what sized positions can we still get in and out of the market with, without it becoming too much of a market moving problem.
New chart. I like this one much better, it's way more useful! Thanks a million!Thanks for that comment. It gave me an idea for the pie chart to break out the calls and puts as well. Since all of my calls currently are leaps, that will give me a better picture of the amount I am selling BPS on. (Hmm. Actually I think I can make it specifically long calls with more than 365 DTE).