Instant 1: person A has lent out 1 share and person B has borrowed 1 share
Magic happens in the brokers books
Instant 2: person A has lent out 5 share and person B has borrowed 5 shares. (at 1/5 price the per share)
I don’t think anyone ever said person A was not owed their 4 shares-just that they don’t have to be physical shares just like the original one was not a physical share. It was 1 ‘virtual’ share before and 5 after
That doesn’t mean there won’t be some covering by shorts (there will be some) and the price will likely rise as most do when a split is announced.
Not that I'm an expert, but I agree with this analysis. The short will be short 5 shares instead of one. Value-wise (considering Value at Risk), there won't be any difference if the share price falls accordingly (e.g. from $1,500 to $300). However, I believe the demand elasticity for TSLA stock to be lower than 1 (
Understanding Price Elasticity of Demand) on the upside, i.e., it is rather unelastic, i.e. if the price increases by 1%, demand does not decrease by 1%, but rather decreases by a infinitesimally smaller number which most likely fluctuates wildly all the time based on macros etc. Ironically, after a certain threshold, the delta hedging kicking in results in the paradoxical situation that the higher the price, the more demand for TSLA there is, similar to a Giffen good (
Giffen good - Wikipedia).
I assume demand elasticity for TSLA to the upside after the split will continue to be lower than 1, i.e., as more shares are demanded, the price is driven up. With the psychological effects of a split increasing demand (before and after the split) -- this effect seems to have been confirmed by multiple case studies --, it is reasonable to assume that the price will continue go up.
Based on this, my assumption is that shorts, if they want to cover (or are forced to), will need to cover at a higher price, such price driven higher by the increased demand for shares. Thus, the Value at Risk will increase for each short, but not based on some kungfu split skillz on the side of Tesla, but based on the price per share that has been bid higher in the meanwhile.
Once the price increase effected by the split blows over, TSLA might very well fall to a price below the split-adjusted pre-split price, in this example, below $300. In this case, the Value at Risk will be lower and thus it will be cheaper for shorts to cover.
So the question is really, do they have the staying power for a temporarily increased price due to the split, and do they continue to bet that the price will go down, even factoring in the catalyst events of S&P inclusion, battery day, etc.? I.e., will there be some forced or intended covering due to the higher volatility to the upside? Not so sure about that.
What about the people who buy the stock on Aug 24, 25, 26, 27, or 28?
The way I understand it is that, if you hold shares with a broker (e.g. IB or Etrade), the shares are not held in your name but in the broker's name. So it shouldn't really matter since the broker will take care of the share count accounting on the backend, and I _think_ you should get the additional shares even if you trade in the middle of the dates. They will trade at the market-determined price; however, since every share then comes with the "right to 4 additional shares", there shouldn't be a free lunch on either side.
In that way, I assume it's similar to a cash dividend, where the shares trade with the right to the cash dividend during the ex-date and the payment date, and once the dividend has been paid out, the value of a share (!= price) falls by the dividend paid.
Note that the last two paragraphs are pure speculation.