jhm
Well-Known Member
What I'm thinking is that it is not just the market makers that move the price toward max pain. But if option holders close their positions as if the price will converge to max pain, then that too removes the hedge that option writers would hold. Suppose you held an a call option with $375 yesterday while max pain was $360. The hedge option writer would have been holding about ~ 55 shares against your call option. If you sold your option to such an option write, they would in turn sell the hedge of 55 shares. So the sell of your call option would have cascaded into downward selling pressure. If enough of this is going on in aggregate, then the net selling pressure pushes the price closer to max pain. This linkage has little do with a market maker trying to minimize pay out; rather it is triggered by the desire of option holders not to lose value under the belief that the price will settle near max pain.a Question for you MaxPain folks: Do I understand this correctly, and are the points of my thesis then sound?
AND THEREFORE -
- MaxPain demonstrates where MarketMakers will most easily (cheaply) satisfy the expiring puts and calls (T/F?)
- Therefore, it behooves them to Make The Market as close to the MaxPain point as possible, right at 4pm Friday (T/F?)
As I write this, today's chart shows a consistent rise upwards from that Close-to-MaxPain level. I've not gone back to other Fridays to see other examples.
- That closing stamp is "artificial", in that it does not truly represent what buying and selling investors consider a market-clearing price (T/F?)
- And to test whether or not the preceding is correct, then
- Once we're into AfterMarket trading, the price naturally will tend to shift upwards or downwards to a "true" market-clearing price. (T/F?)
??????????
But to be clear, I am not a MaxPain folk. I'm just trying to understand the market mechanisms at work around it.