TheTalkingMule
Distributed Energy Enthusiast
It's safe to take Korean stats as a mature dataset at this point, right? They've been stable for more than a week and it's safe to say deaths have caught up to cases making the 1.24% mortality rate reliable. These guys tested more broadly and thoroughly than anyone by far.South Korea also tested pro-actively. Their crude rate was a bit above 0.5% early on, now it's 1.24%. Their two week lag rate is ~1.5%. Like Germany, their two week lag rate was 10% early on, despite proactive testing they had missed a ton of cases in that sect.
Now....in a country of 51M people, do we honestly think only 8,961 people have contracted cv? Step back and take a look at Korea's 111 total deaths and tell me the true mortality rate of this thing won't be .2% or lower when all is said and done.
Doctors are estimating 40+% of people will contract this virus(similar to the 20-30% that got SARS). If that's even remotely close to true and mortality is over 1%, why are there only 111 deaths in Korea? How can anywhere hit heavily by this, regardless of response or quarantine, have only 111 deaths if mortality is so high?
Perhaps I'm making a glaring logic error as well?